The histories of literature from a non professor.

I know that Shakespeare used some style DIRRECTLY FROM THE GREEKS OR ROMANS WHO WERE NO DIFFERENT. That is a very long history of using the classical verse structure.  Why you may ask was Shakespeare doing this?  Because it is very challenging for the writer.  People have taken this challenge because either in truth or opinion this was the hight in which language could go.  In fact the Greeks have a very good argument as to why.  Find a link or two to see what I am referring to.